최선을 다하여 여러분이 꼭 한번에 시험을 패스할 수 있도록 도와드리겠습니다.: 8월 2013

2013년 8월 30일 금요일

ASC-093 덤프 Symantec 인증

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-093
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC Data Loss Prevention 2010)

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NO.1 If an Enforce server is configured to use Active Directory (AD) authentication for logins, which statement
is true?
A. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been assigned a role.
B. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have been added to the
krb5.ini or krb5.conf file.
C. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as their Organizational Unit has been
assigned to a Policy Group.
D. Any user that has an account in AD can log in to Enforce as long as they have a matching user name in
Enforce.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Symantec Data Loss Prevention can be configured to populate custom attributes pulled from a
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) server. In addition to LiveLdapLookup.properties, which
other file must be modified to configure custom attributes.?
A. Plugins.properties
B. Manager.properties
C. Jdbc.properties
D. Aggregator.properties
Answer: A

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NO.3 A user has determined that many incidents are showing 100 matches per incident from the default PCI
policy template. The user needs to increase this limit to better reflect the most critical files with the most
violations. Which change will increase the number of maximum matches per incident?
A. change the value for DI.MaxViolations
B. change the value for IncidentDetection.patternConditionMaxViolations
C. change the value for EDM.MaximumNumberOfMatchesToReturn
D. change the value for Incident Threshold within the relevant policy
Answer: A

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NO.4 When implementing an automated response rule, what must be done to make the rule execute?
A. select Incident All and click the Response Rule button to execute
B. enable response rules from the Settings page
C. add the response rule to the appropriate policy
D. Automated response rules are effective as soon as they are created
Answer: C

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NO.5 Endpoint agents CANNOT monitor data copies to what?
A. CD/DVD
B. network shares
C. USB (for example, thumb drives)
D. printers/faxes
Answer: B

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NO.6 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can use custom SSL certificates to secure communication between the
Endpoint server and Endpoint agents. What is the name of the tool that is used to create these
certificates?
A. endpointssl.exe
B. endpointkeytool.exe
C. sslkeytool.exe
D. endpointsslkey.exe
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is a best practice to be used for monitoring mail traffic in an environment that uses Transport
Layer Security (TLS) for their outbound email?
A. deploy Network Prevent for Email
B. turn TLS off on the outbound email server
C. import the TLS certificate from the outbound email server onto the Network Monitor detection server
D. Data Loss Prevention is not capable of viewing TLS traffic.
Answer: A

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NO.8 What needs to be done with unused Network Interface Cards (NIC) on the Enforce server?
A. They need to be configured to utilize Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
B. They need to be disabled.
C. They need to be configured with a static IP address.
D. They need to be assigned with 127.0.0.1 as their IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the best method for deploying a policy to Endpoint agents that makes use of Index Matching.
A. create the policy using Described Content, then "and" the Index Matching statement into the policy
B. Policies that use Index Matching cannot be deployed to Endpoint agents.
C. create the policy using the Index Matching statement, then "and" a Described Content statement into
the policy
D. combine all Index Matching statements that are to be deployed to Endpoint agents into one single
policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 Data Loss Prevention (DLP) Network Prevent supports load balancing among multiple Prevent servers
in high volume networks. In the absence of a network load balancing device, what is the best practice for
enabling load balance among multiple Prevent servers?
A. enable Load Balancing in the Settings, Servers Overview page
B. In the case of Network Prevent for Email, the upstream MTA is configured with the IP address of each
Prevent server. This is done in a similar fashion for the web proxy server(s) with the IP address of each
Network Prevent for web server.
C. A third Network Interface Card (NIC) is required for each Prevent server to be used as a "heartbeat
monitor" to the other Prevent servers. Once installed and configured, the Prevent servers act as a virtual
cluster.
D. configure a DNS alias to point to the IP address of each Prevent server, also known as a DNS Round
Robin
Answer: D

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ASC-066 덤프 Symantec 자격증

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시험 번호/코드: ASC-066
시험 이름: Symantec (ASC EndPoint Management Assessment)

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NO.1 How are console permissions assigned to resources on the Notification Server?
A.Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B.Organizational Views and Groups
C.Access Control Lists (ACL)
D.Filters and Targets
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are correct when determining Notification Server hardware requirements?
(Select two.)
A.Hardware specification is directly proportional to the number of managed endpoints.
B.Optimizing individual solutions can decrease the supported managed endpoints.
C.Number of utilized solutions affects the maximum supported endpoint count.
D.MS SQL installed on the Notification Server increases the maximum supported endpoint count.
E.Placing site servers in the environment decreases the supported managed endpoints on a Notification
Server.
Answer: AC

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NO.3 Which SMP component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A.Package Server
B.Task Server
C.Site Server
D.PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which critical engagement meeting ensures all stakeholders have the same expectations of the goals
and deliverables of the project?
A.Customer Needs Assessment Meeting
B.Customer Engagement Planning Meeting
C.Business Requirements Meeting
D.Project Kick-off Meeting
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Select two.)
A.information related to the configuration of managed computers
B.an inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C.physical software packages to install applications on managed computers
D.Symantec Management Platform core web application settings
E.settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

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NO.6 What is the primary goal of the assessment phase of the Client Management Suite service?
A.Determine solution requirements and expectations of all stakeholders within the project.
B.Determine the solution configuration of all components.
C.Define the solution architecture and provide hardware and software requirements.
D.Define the solution workflow in order to design the solution configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 If a consultant fails to identify who will be responsible for post-engagement technical support, who will
end up being responsible?
A.the consultant
B.Symantec Support
C.the customer
D.the project manager
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two duties are performed by Site Servers? (Select two.)
A.move policies and tasks closer to their points of distribution
B.move network-intensive services closer to their points of distribution
C.move software and clients to the distribution pool
D.move memory intensive services to a different site
E.move processor-intensive services off of the Notification Server
Answer: BE

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NO.9 What are two benefits of using Symantec's Service Delivery Methodology? (Select two.)
A.reduces the risk of project scope creep
B.minimizes project risk
C.provides proven delivery methodology
D.uses industry best practices
E.increases customer satisfaction
Answer: CD

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NO.10 Which two factors can influence overall Client Management Suite design? (Select two.)
A.network bandwidth and topology
B.managed node count
C.Notification Server service pack version
D.change control process
E.database maintenance schedules
Answer: AB

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NO.11 Before going to a customer site for solution deployment, what should a consultant check for?
A.places to stay and eat
B.product updates
C.competitive products
D.customer's competition
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is an organizational view?
A.a hierarchical grouping of resources
B.a hierarchical list of user permissions
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a set of reports organized by computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.13 When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A.likelihood of occurrence
B.order of occurrence
C.level of inconvenience to the customer
D.impact to the project
E.visibility to senior management
Answer: AD

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NO.14 What is the Notification Server the primary component of?
A.SIM
B.SAM
C.Deployment Server
D.Symantec Management Platform
Answer: D

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NO.15 How is resource scoping implemented?
A.by including the appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B.by granting the permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
C.by replacing the filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections
D.by creating multiple organizational views and groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources
Answer: B

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NO.16 What should a consultant recommend to a customer as a post-engagement service offering?
A.ongoing tech support
B.additional licenses
C.new hardware and software
D.six month health check
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the primary purpose of Site Services?
A.decentralized administration
B.centralized administration
C.minimize WAN utilization
D.increase agent to Notification Server communications
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is an organizational group?
A.an object that contains resources and other organizational groups
B.a list of users with a given set of permissions and privileges
C.a customized set of folders, item links, and web links
D.a report showing a selected organization of computers and users
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is a Site Server?
A.any computer with a site service installed on it
B.any computer with software packages stored on it
C.any Notification Server assigned to be in a site
D.any server that is assigned to be in a site
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two items should be associated with a site when configuring sites on the Notification Server?
(Select two.)
A.site services
B.clients
C.subnets
D.Notification Server
E.multi-cast addresses
Answer: AC

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-132
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 Exam)

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NO.1 Which prerequisite must be met to take advantage of the Connection Classification and Fastpass
features?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway must use a virtual IP address.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured with two network interfaces.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be the first SMTP hop into the network.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway must be configured in scanner-only mode.
Answer: C

Symantec자료   ST0-132   ST0-132

NO.2 An administrator tests the default antivirus policies by sending a message with an encrypted
attachment.
When the administrator checks the recipient inbox, what appears?
A.The test email appears with a modified subject line.
B.A system-generated message appears concerning an unscannable attachment.
C.A pointer to the Suspect Virus Quarantine appears.
D.The email is missing due to deletion by the system.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which Directory Data Source function must be configured to enable end-user spam quarantine?
A.SMTP authentication
B.address resolution
C.recipient validation
D.authentication
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists?
(Select two.)
A.Add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains.
B.Check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group".
C.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions.
D.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions.
E.Configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions.
Answer: B, E

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NO.5 Where are options for backup and restore of Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 located?
A.Administration -> Version
B.Administration -> Configuration
C.Administration -> Control Center
D.Administration -> Recovery
Answer: A

Symantec시험문제   ST0-132   ST0-132인증

NO.6 In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A.when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B.when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C.when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D.when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E.when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

Symantec자료   ST0-132   ST0-132   ST0-132인증

NO.7 A diagnostics package for a scanner-only appliance can be generated from the GUI in Symantec
Messaging Gateway 9.5.If the package is small (less than 5 MB), which transfer protocol type should be
used by the administrator to verify the diagnostics package before providing it to technical support for
analysis?
A.email to administrator
B.download to desktop
C.FTP
D.SCP
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator recently investigated the debug logs for Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 and
resolved an issue.A few days later the administrator discovers that the disk storage is filling up
quickly.What is the likely cause?
A.Real-time update level is turned up.
B.Local log level is turned up.
C.Active user data is turned up.
D.Remote log level is turned up.
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-132   ST0-132

NO.9 What happens if a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner is behind another internal messaging
gateway?
A.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might quarantine all mail from the internal gateway MTA if
DKIM is disabled.
B.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners might identify the IP address of the internal gateway MTA as a
source of spam.
C.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will trust all mail from the internal gateway MTA.
D.Symantec Messaging Gateway scanners will grant the internal gateway MTA a Fastpass.
Answer: B

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NO.10 What should an administrator do before performing a software update of Symantec Messaging
Gateway 9.5?
A.store backup on local server
B.store backup on a remote location using FTP
C.encrypt local backup
D.purge all backups from the appliance
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-132자격증   ST0-132

NO.11 A message released from Spam Quarantine is delivered to the intended recipient.Under the default
configuration, where is a copy of the misidentified message also sent?
A.intended recipient's manager
B.Symantec Security Response
C.Administrator@localhost
D.Admin@localhost
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the default time period that a suspect virus can reside in the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.2 hours
B.4 hours
C.6 hours
D.8 hours
Answer: C

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NO.13 A company uses multiple control centers.What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A.Configure the same seed value on each control center.
B.Configure different seed values on each control center.
C.Configure the same seed value on each scanner.
D.Configure different seed values on each scanner.
Answer: A

Symantec인증   ST0-132   ST0-132덤프

NO.14 What is the current name of the LDAP synchronization technology used within the Symantec
Messaging Gateway?
A.Dynamic Data Cache
B.Directory Data Service
C.Data Directory Tool
D.LDAP Directory Service
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-132   ST0-132   ST0-132덤프   ST0-132

NO.15 Message throughput of a Symantec Messaging Gateway scanner-only appliance can be reduced by
which two features? (Select two.)
A.rapid release definitions
B.real-time updates
C.DKIM signing
D.SMTP authentication
E.hourly quarantine expunging
Answer: C, D

Symantec   ST0-132시험문제   ST0-132   ST0-132

NO.16 Before performing a software update on a scanner-only appliance, which MTA operation/mode should
be chosen if there are messages in the queues?
A.Stop the MTA.
B.Accept and deliver messages normally.
C.Pause message scanning and delivery.
D.Do not accept incoming messages.
Answer: D

Symantec자격증   ST0-132시험문제   ST0-132시험문제   ST0-132   ST0-132   ST0-132

NO.17 An employee reports that a message sent to a customer was rejected.The employee provides
sufficient information for the administrator to find the message using the Message Audit log.The employee
wants to know why that message was blocked.Which section of the Message Audit Log detail page would
provide this information?
A.Verdict
B.Message Header
C.Tracker
D.Destination
Answer: A

Symantec인증   ST0-132최신덤프   ST0-132최신덤프

NO.18 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware devices?
A.Symantec 2950 series appliances
B.Symantec 3570 series appliances
C.Symantec 7100 series appliances
D.Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   ST0-132   ST0-132   ST0-132시험문제   ST0-132

NO.19 Symantec Messaging Gateway 9.5 is running out of disk space due to storing extended logs.The
administrator is required to store extended log data for more than a year.Which action should the
administrator take?
A.Lower the maximum log storage limit.
B.Increase the Messaging Gateway server threads.
C.Configure remote logging.
D.Delete messages from the queue.
Answer: C

Symantec인증   ST0-132   ST0-132   ST0-132

NO.20 How could an administrator filter email more aggressively by adjusting the suspected spam score?
A.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 99.
B.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 60.
C.Lower the suspected spam score from the default to 24.
D.Raise the suspected spam score from the default to 91.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 250-402
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1)

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NO.1 After customizing the preboot configuration files, previously created configurations need to be updated.
Each file is highlighted and then the option to rebuild them is selected. After all items have been updated,
the "Save" button on the policy is selected to ensure all changes are stored in the database. However,
after several hours or even a day, the configuration files on the PXE servers maintain an old date instead
of the new date. Why do the PXE servers have the old date?
A. The PXE servers are missing from the policy assigned to the preboot configurations because several
policies were modified at the same time.
B. SBS Services must first be restarted to accept new policy changes from the server even though the
agent has received the policy.
C. The PXE Server configuration policy must also be updated at the same time as the preboot
configurations.
D. The preboot configuration policy changes are already saved and have been lost due to saving the
policy again.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two prerequisites for installing and configuring IT Analytics? (Select two.)
A. Microsoft Reporting and Analysis Services
B. Adobe Flash
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Datamining Viewer Controls
D. Microsoft Office Web Components 11 (2003)
E. Microsoft Silverlight
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 When manually creating an entry within the Software Catalog, the administrator needs the Managed
Delivery policy to verify that prerequisite software is installed before deploying a new application. What
should the administrator use to execute a prerequisite check?
A. Detection Rule
B. Applicability Rule
C. Basic Inventory
D. Software Filter
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system administrator is testing the delivery of an application. During deployment, the administrator
determines that the install path of an MSI needed to be changed without modifying the MSI. The
administrator needs to change the command line parameters of the install package. Which policies would
be affected when the default install command line of a software package is modified in the Software
Catalog?
A. policies that are assigned to a non-managed computer
B. policies that leverage Software Discovery
C. policies currently referencing the modified entry
D. policies referencing staged software updates
Answer: C

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NO.5 A system administrator discovers that an unauthorized piece of software called "Solitaire 2099" has
been installed on company desktops. The software installs a browser toolbar that prevents the use of the
company standard browser toolbar and needs to be removed immediately. The administrator has also
been instructed to identify all users that are playing the game so that they can receive a private email
about the situation. Which two capabilities of Inventory Solution will help the administrator? (Select two.)
A. Inventory Solution provides data about the number of installed instances of an application. B.Inventory
Solution automatically associates software titles to users.
B. Inventory Solution automatically determines unauthorized software titles.
C. Inventory Solution tracks how often an application is executed.
D. Inventory Solution identifies harmful applications stored on local hard drives.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 A group of computers are received from a computer manufacturer with a list of corresponding MAC
addresses. To facilitate the imaging of the computers, the list is modified and then imported to
Deployment Solution, creating new computer accounts. In a lab, all computers are started and booted into
WinPE automation. In the console, a job is assigned to each computer appropriate to its hardware; but the
computers never get the tasks or run the jobs. What is a likely reason for this behavior?
A. The number of concurrent tasks assigned for imaging is overwhelming the SQL server.
B. The computer records in the database are missing necessary key information to properly identify the
computers.
C. The network addresses assigned to the computers in the lab are outside the SBS configured ranges.
D. New computers must first check in and be given a GUID in the console before being assigned a name
and corresponding jobs or tasks.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are two prerequisites for installing Out-of-Band Management.? (Select two.)
A. SQL Server configured in mixed authentication mode
B. SQL Server configured in Windows authentication mode
C. Symantec Management Platform
D. SQL Analysis Service installed
E. SSL/TLS
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.1? (Select two.)
A. Service Desk
B. CMDB Solution
C. pcAnywhere
D. Wise Package Studio Professional
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: C,E

Symantec   250-402덤프   250-402자료   250-402

NO.9 A patch administrator is preparing to deploy new patches. The administrator needs to avoid applying
Microsoft updates to the wrong operating systems. How should the administrator deploy the patches?
A. by creating a Software Update policy to distribute the updates
B. by configuring the Import Patch Data for Microsoft task and only including applicable updates
C. by staging the update for each operating system in the test environment
D. by only applying updates to the Target with applicable computers when creating a Software Update
policy
Answer: A

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NO.10 The IT Security department wants to prevent all versions of a particular file sharing application from
running on company computers. Where must the software resource be defined before it can be prevented
from running?
A. Software Inventory scan
B. Software Catalog
C. Software Library
D. Software Update policy
Answer: D

Symantec자격증   250-402   250-402기출문제   250-402최신덤프   250-402

NO.11 A software was virtualized during a Managed Software Delivery installation. Which method must be
used to manage the layer?
A. Virtual Composer task
B. Software Virtualization Command task
C. Package Delivery task
D. Quick Delivery task
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator receives notification of a new vulnerability threat from Symantec Deepsight Alert
Services. The alert includes the name of an executable that should be prevented from running. Which
policy should the administrator configure?
A. Malware Blocking policy
B. Application Metering policy
C. Custom Inventory policy
D. Software Inventory policy
Answer: A

Symantec자격증   250-402 dump   250-402

NO.13 An administrator is reviewing software resources in the software catalog. There is a duplicate for a
software resource. The administrator has initiated the Resolve Duplicate Software Resources Wizard and
selected the option to merge duplicate resources. What will happen to the duplicate entries in the
Software Catalog?
A. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and keeps the duplicates.
B. It updates the original software resource with both unique identifiers and the duplicate is deleted.
C. It creates a new software resource with the information from both entries and the entry with the newest
timestamp is deleted.
D. It updates the original software resources with the information from both entries and the entry with the
oldest timestamp is deleted.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-402   250-402   250-402

NO.14 A system administrator deployed the Inventory Solution Agent Plug-in to 15,000 endpoints across a
company. Subsequently, the administrator realizes that the performance of the Notification Server is
slower during the inventory scan times. Which two actions can be taken within Inventory Solution to
reduce the processing impact on the Notification Server during these times? (Select two.)
A. Create multiple policies on different schedules for subsets of computers.
B. Create a custom weekly schedule instead of using the default weekly schedule.
C. Enable the priority setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
D. Use the AeXRunControl.exe program to randomize the collection of inventory.
E. Use the throttling setting in the advanced settings of the inventory task.
Answer: A,E

Symantec   250-402   250-402

NO.15 An administrator needs to use the Deployment Solution task listed below in a job that will be used to
capture an image of a computer running Windows XP. Prepare for Image capture Which two configuration
steps must be completed before the task can be created? (Select two.)
A. enable PXE
B. create a system configuration
C. create a sysprep token
D. upload the applicable deploy.cab file
E. add an OS license key
Answer: D,E

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-085
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)

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NO.1 Which Symantec Security Information Manager component retrieves security content in near-realtime
from Symantec?
A.LiveUpdate
B.LiveUpdate and licensed DeepSight Integration Module simultaneously
C.Licensed DeepSight Integration Module
D.Security content retrieval is automatic.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tab on the Information Manager Console allows you to view threat and vulnerability information?
A.Rules
B.Dashboard
C.Reports
D.Intelligence
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the difference between Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box and off-box
collectors?
A.Off-box collectors are installed on the SSIM products and on-box collectors are installed on the
appliance.
B.On-box collectors are installed prior to SSIM software installation and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
C.On-box collectors are automatically installed with the SSIM software and off-box collectors are installed
separately.
D.Off-box collectors are installed on the appliance and on-box collectors are installed on assets.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is Device-level aggregation?
A.parsing data with data sensors
B.grouping data to reduce traffic and database size
C.forwarding event data to the appliance
D.event and log sensoring
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is the purpose of the critical business assets management feature?
A.It enables automatic identification and prioritization of security threats that impact business-critical
applications.
B.It obtains an overview of business assets.
C.It makes it possible to change collectors' configurations to meet business assets needs.
D.It provides a visual picture of where critical business assets are located.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which third-party software components support LDAP for users, roles, and configurations?
A.IBM Directory Server
B.Microsoft Active Directory Server
C.IBM DB2 8.1
D.IBM DB2 8.2
Answer: A

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NO.7 What are the specified minimum hardware requirements for installing and running the Symantec
Security Information Manager Console?
A.1 GB RAM and 1 GB disk space
B.1 GB RAM and 512 MB disk space
C.512 MB RAM and 1 GB disk space
D.512 MB RAM and 103 MB disk space
Answer: D

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NO.8 On which two operating systems can the Symantec Security Information Manager Agent be installed?
(Select two.)
A.Solaris 9
B.Windows 2000
C.Centos
D.IBM AIX 5
E.HP-UX 11
Answer: AB

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NO.9 Which of the following are all on-box collectors?
A.PIX, UNIX Syslog and Data Leakage Prevention
B.Checkpoint, Snort and PIX
C.PIX, Snort and Symantec Web Gateway
D.Checkpoint, UNIX Syslog and Control Compliance Suite
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does the Correlation Engine analyze events against once all rules are properly defined?
A.the rule criteria, create triggers, and correlate conclusions into incidents
B.false positives, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
C.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and correlate conclusions into incidents
D.the rule criteria, create conclusions, and send conclusions to the database
Answer: C

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NO.11 What information is necessary to properly size a deployment?
A.hard drive space, events per second and geographic locations
B.events per second,collector types and incident-to-event ratio
C.hard drive space, incidents per second and collector types
D.events per second, geographic locations and event-to-incident ratio
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are the hard drive specifications for the hardware?
A.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 5)
B.6 drives (2 mirrored and 4 in RAID 10)
C.6 drives (RAID 5)
D.2 drives (mirrored)
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which component sends events to the Event Service for processing?
A.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) collector
B.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) on-box collector
C.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) off-box collector
D.the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) agent
Answer: C

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NO.14 Where do Symantec Security Information Manager collectors send events?
A.Event Disposition
B.Event Archive
C.Event Reporting
D.Event Logger
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following vendor hardware is recommended to use with Symantec Security Information
Manager (SSIM)?
A.IBM
B.NEC
C.Dell
D.Hitachi
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which component escalates security events into incidents?
A.rules
B.events
C.incidents
D.tickets
Answer: A

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NO.17 What information must be obtained prior to product deployment and configuration of the Symantec
Security Information Manager appliance?
A.which on-box collectors are appropriate for installation
B.the number of nodes found in the customer's infrastructure
C.the number of security events per day the appliance will handle
D.the air-conditioning and power requirements
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which database houses incidents and summary data?
A.Oracle
B.MySQL
C.MSSQL
D.IBM DB2
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which OS listed does hardware used for the Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) image
support?
A.SUSE
B.Centos
C.Redhat
D.SE Linux
Answer: C

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NO.20 Symantec Security Information Manager Series Appliance installs which operating system by default?
A.Solaris
B.Windows
C.SUSE
D.Red Hat
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: 250-252
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Unix)

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NO.1 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.2 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.6 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.8 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.13 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.14 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-148
시험 이름: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )

ST0-148 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/ST0-148.html

NO.1 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-148   ST0-148자격증

NO.2 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

Symantec pdf   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148 pdf

NO.3 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

Symantec자료   ST0-148인증   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148

NO.4 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-148자격증   ST0-148   ST0-148자격증

NO.5 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

Symantec자격증   ST0-148덤프   ST0-148 pdf

NO.6 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-148   ST0-148덤프

NO.7 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

Symantec dumps   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148시험문제

NO.8 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

Symantec   ST0-148   ST0-148시험문제   ST0-148

NO.9 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148시험문제   ST0-148자격증

NO.10 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-148덤프   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148 dump

NO.11 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

Symantec자격증   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148자격증   ST0-148인증

NO.12 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-148덤프   ST0-148   ST0-148

NO.13 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-148기출문제   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148인증   ST0-148

NO.14 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

Symantec자료   ST0-148   ST0-148 dumps   ST0-148기출문제   ST0-148

NO.15 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-148   ST0-148   ST0-148자료

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Symantec 인증 ST0-141 덤프

Symantec인증 ST0-141시험은 인기있는 IT자격증을 취득하는데 필요한 국제적으로 인정받는 시험과목입니다. Symantec인증 ST0-141시험을 패스하려면 ITExamDump의Symantec인증 ST0-141덤프로 시험준비공부를 하는게 제일 좋은 방법입니다. ITExamDump덤프는 IT전문가들이 최선을 다해 연구해낸 멋진 작품입니다. Symantec인증 ST0-141덤프구매후 업데이트될시 업데이트버전을 무료서비스료 제공해드립니다.

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-141
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Technical Assessment)

ST0-141 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/ST0-141.html

NO.1 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

Symantec덤프   ST0-141   ST0-141   ST0-141   ST0-141 pdf

NO.2 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

Symantec   ST0-141   ST0-141덤프   ST0-141

NO.3 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

Symantec   ST0-141   ST0-141시험문제

NO.4 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

Symantec최신덤프   ST0-141   ST0-141자격증   ST0-141 dumps   ST0-141   ST0-141

NO.5 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

Symantec기출문제   ST0-141   ST0-141인증   ST0-141

NO.6 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-141덤프   ST0-141자격증   ST0-141   ST0-141덤프

NO.7 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

Symantec시험문제   ST0-141   ST0-141자료

NO.8 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-141 dump   ST0-141   ST0-141자격증

NO.9 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   ST0-141기출문제   ST0-141   ST0-141   ST0-141인증

NO.10 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

Symantec덤프   ST0-141   ST0-141   ST0-141 pdf   ST0-141덤프

NO.11 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-141   ST0-141인증   ST0-141 dump

NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-141   ST0-141최신덤프   ST0-141

NO.13 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-141   ST0-141 dump   ST0-141   ST0-141시험문제   ST0-141인증

NO.14 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

Symantec자격증   ST0-141   ST0-141인증   ST0-141자료   ST0-141

NO.15 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-141   ST0-141   ST0-141

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Symantec 자격증 ST0-199 시험덤프

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-199
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 Technical Assessment )

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NO.1 Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 is certified for non-virtual deployment on which hardware
devices?
A. Symantec 2950 series appliances
B. Symantec 3570 series appliances
C. Symantec 7100 series appliances
D. Symantec 8300 series appliances
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator needs to determine which policies have triggered for a particular message.
Which
troubleshooting tool will help to identify issues with policy precedence and actions?
A. Incident Match log
B. Filtering Policy report
C. Filtering Precedence Exception report
D. Message Audit log
Answer: D

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NO.3 With Fastpass enabled, which two verdicts may be excluded for messages with a pass? (Select
two.)
A. Spam
B. Suspected Spam
C. Virus
D. Suspected Virus
E. Compliance
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0
appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. DVD-ROM drive listed on hardware compatibility list
C. valid license file
D. machine account created in Active Directory
Answer: A

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NO.5 An organization has an extremely large LDAP database. What is done in Symantec Messaging
Gateway 10.0 that will help prevent mail from backing up in the system during the initial directory
building process?
A. reduce the length of time that logs and quarantine items are kept in the database
B. configure the control center to download the complete directory of users each night
C. the appliance fails open during the initial phase of deployment to prevent email from backing up
during the initial directory building process
D. preload the directory data cache
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of incident folders that may be created in Symantec
Messaging
Gateway 10.0?
A. 100
B. 1,000
C. 10,000
D. unlimited
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two are functions of a Symantec Messaging Gateway 10.0 scanner? (Select two.)
A. provides quarantine storage for messages
B. downloads virus definitions
C. hosts a web server
D. filters the message stream
E. runs expunger agents for the quarantine
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 What is an advantage of Symantec Content Encryption over TLS encryption?
A. ensures compliance with government-mandated regulations
B. TLS encryption provides better security than content encryption.
C. may be implemented without requiring SSL certificates for each scanner
D. ensures secure end-to-end delivery of sensitive messages
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41080
Answer: B

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NO.10 What happens to a message after it has been identified as a suspect virus and placed into the
suspect virus quarantine?
A. It is automatically deleted after 7 days.
B. It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C. It is stored in the Central Quarantine Server.
D. It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 510-033
시험 이름: Sybase (Sybase Replication Server Administrator Pro Exam)

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NO.1 Which errorlog code indicates a message is reporting a stopped thread?
A. E
B. F
C. I
D. H
E. N
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which RSSD counter table holds the description of a sampling period?
A. rs_statcounters
B. rs_statdetail
C. rs_statrun
D. rs_subscriptions
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following converts transactions forwarded to Replication Server into LTL (Log Transfer
Language)?
A. maint user
B. RepAgent
C. primary user
D. rssd maint user
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following are TRUE about a RepAgent? (Choose 2)
A. Moves the primary truncation point
B. Is an Adaptive Server Enterprise thread
C. Applies transactions to the replicate database
D. Reads the primary database transaction log
E. Maintains referential integrity
Answer: BD

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NO.5 Which of the following operations can NOT be replicated? (Choose 2)
A. Drop table
B. Reorg rebuild
C. Slow bcp
D. Truncate table
E. Update statistics
Answer: BE

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NO.6 What action must be taken to properly affect a change to a RepAgent configuration parameter in a
running Replication Server System?
A. The RepAgent connection to the primary database must be suspended before a change is made to the
parameter and then the connection must be resumed.
B. The RepAgent thread must be stopped before a change is made to the parameter and then restarted.
C. The parameter can be modified at any time and the RepAgent connection to the primary database
must be suspended then be resumed before the modification is applied.
D. The parameter can be modified at any time and the RepAgent thread must be stopped and restarted
before the modification is applied.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Where are function Replication Definitions created for request functions?
A. Primary database
B. Primary Replication Server
C. Replicate database
D. Replicate Replication Server
Answer: B

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NO.8 In order to store output from the admin stats command for further analysis, you must
A. set up a repository table in the RSSD.
B. turn off the RSSD RepAgent.
C. run admin stats with the keyword ave
D. increase the size of the SQT.
E. run admin stats with the keyword isplay
Answer: C

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NO.9 The admin who, sqm command is executed at the Replication Server and displays the following output.
Info First Seg.Block Last Seg.Block
Next Read
133:0 ReplicateDS.RDB 4.3 4.3
4.4
Which of the following are correct? (Choose 2)
A. The queue is empty and is ready for new transactions.
B. The queue is behind and contains lots of transactions that need to be processed.
C. The queue is full and the stable device should be enlarged.
D. The queue is an inbound queue.
E. The queue is an outbound queue.
Answer: AE

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NO.10 Which of the following are TRUE about request functions? (Choose 2)
A. A function replicate definition is needed for both the primary Replication Server and the replicate
Replication Server.
B. A function Replication Definition is created in the Primary Replication Server.
C. Request functions do not use subscriptions.
D. Request functions do not have to be marked for replication.
Answer: BC

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NO.11 Which table in the master database contains the secondary truncation point?
A. sysprocesses
B. syslogs
C. spt_values
D. syslogshold
Answer: D

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NO.12 Given the following table and stored procedure:
create table t (a int)
create procedure p
@param int
as
insert t values (@param)
A Replication Definition exists for table 't'. Table 't' and stored procedure 'p' are both marked for replication.
What will be replicated when the following code is executed without errors:
begin transaction
insert t values (100)
execute p 101
commit
execute p 102
A. One 'execute' operation is replicated
B. One 'insert' and one 'execute' operations are replicated
C. One 'insert' and two 'execute' operations are replicated
D. Three 'insert' and two 'execute' operations are replicated
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following thread types is responsible for serializing transactions?
A. DIST
B. DSI
C. RSI
D. SQM
E. SQT
Answer: E

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NO.14 Which statements are TRUE about replicating tables with encrypted columns in ASE?
A. Replication Server automatically generates separate column encryption keys for the replicate
database.
B. The DBA must manually create the same set of column encryption keys in all databases in the
replication system.
C. Replication Server replicates the encrypted data and the column encryption keys to the replicate
databases without decryption.
D. Replication Server replicates encrypted data as plaintext, so SSL is required to protect the data.
Answer: C

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NO.15 The command admin config is used to display information related to which parameters below?(Choose
3)
A. route
B. subscription
C. logical connection
D. physical connection
E. Replication Definition
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 A Request Function requires which of the following?
A. Function Replication Definition
B. Replication Definition
C. Subscription
D. Publication
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following are TRUE regarding the rs_ticket_report stored procedure located in a replicate
database? (Choose 3)
A. Must be modified to place its output into a results table
B. Is used to update the rs_ticket counter
C. To save the output of the procedure, a table must be created in the replicate database
D. Reports on every change of data to the replicate database
E. Accepts timestamp and byte information for transactions
Answer: ACE

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NO.18 Which of the following tables contain the Replication Server exception log?(Choose 3)
A. rs_systext
B. rs_excepthdr
C. rs_msgs
D. rs_locater
E. rs_exceptscmd
F. rs_recovery
Answer: ABE

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are NOT true about stored procedure replication?
A. Request functions are replicated from the primary to the replicate database.
B. Use sp_setrepproc to mark a stored procedure for replication.
C. Request functions cannot be executed in a Warm Standby environment.
D. Request functions do not require a subscription.
Answer: A

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NO.20 A route between two Replication Servers represents?(Choose 2)
A. one way data flow.
B. a connection between a Replication Server and a replicate dataserver.
C. one outbound queue that can map to several Replication Server system queues.
D. a connection between a Replication Server and a primary dataserver.
Answer: AC

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