2013년 9월 30일 월요일

Avaya 3200.1 덤프자료

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시험 번호/코드: 3200.1
시험 이름: Avaya (Avaya Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Q&A: 65 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-29

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NO.1 A technician is installing a service park on a Modular Messaging Single Server. The technician has
copied the updates to the server using the System Platform.
In which folder on the Messaging Application Server (MAS) will the technician find the updates.?
A. C:\Avaya_ Support\Updates
B. C:\Avaya Modular Messaging\Patch Cache
C. C:\Important_Files
D. C:\MM_PATCH_FILES
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three are pre installation tasks that Avaya recommends for the initial installation of the Modular
Messaging 5.2 system? (Choose three.)
A. Download the software updates and service packs.
B. Run the backup and verification tool.
C. Complete the Data Collection Tool data file.
D. Acquire the RFA authorization file.
E. Download the Configuration Notes.
Answer: A,C,E

Avaya인증   3200.1   3200.1 pdf   3200.1   3200.1

NO.3 A technician is installing a now Avaya Modular Messaging 5.2 Single Server. The customer wants to
include a Web Client server in the installation.
Which two statements about the Web Client are true? (Choose two.)
A. Web Client can be installed on a separate server from Avaya Modular Messaging.
B. Web Client can be installed as a virtual machine on the System Platform Server.
C. Web Client is not supported by Avaya Modular Messaging 5.2 Single Server.
D. Web Client software should be installed on the Message Application Server (MAS) virtual machine.
Answer: C,D

Avaya   3200.1   3200.1자격증   3200.1기출문제

NO.4 Which three are steps to finish Message Storage Server (MSS) administration? (Choose three.)
A. Administer Classes of Service (CoS).
B. Enter the final IP addresses.
C. Administer switch integration.
D. Place the MSS in a Windows domain.
E. Administer special mailboxes.
Answer: A,D,E

Avaya자료   3200.1자격증   3200.1덤프   3200.1   3200.1덤프

NO.5 A customer had a catastrophic failure, and has just finished reloading a system. They would like to
restore all their data horn an ftp/sftp backup. Which statement described the first Step to restoring their
data in this manner?
A. Stop the voice system processing.
B. Install the latest service pack and patches.
C. Administer the TCP/IP settings
D. Reboot the Messaging Storage Server (MSS).
Answer: A

Avaya   3200.1   3200.1 dump

NO.6 As part of the initial installation, configuring the "Offline Access" is important in case there is problem
with the Message Application Servers (MAS) accessing the Message Storage Server (MSS). At which
point in the insinuation process should the "Offline Access" be configured?
A. when configuring the Web Subscriber options
B. only after the MSS is configured
C. when configuring the primary MAS
D. only after all the MASs are configured
Answer: D

Avaya기출문제   3200.1인증   3200.1 pdf

NO.7 A technician is installing Outlook Thick Client (OIC).
Which ports on the network need to be opened to allow communications to the Modular Messaging
system?
A. Ports 21 or 23
B. Ports 21 and 443
C. Ports 25, 143, and 389
D. Ports 25, 143, and 5001
Answer: C

Avaya   3200.1   3200.1   3200.1   3200.1

NO.8 When considering password security, mailbox passwords can be required to have a specific length.
What is the default minimum subscriber password length, and what is the maximum length the word can
be set to?
A. Default 6; Maximum 10
B. Default 6; Maximum 20
C. Default 4; Maximum l5
D. Default 4; Maximum 10
E. Default 5; Maximum 10
Answer: C

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NO.9 A customer is migrating from Modular Messaging 3.0 on a S3400 server to Modular Messaging
5.2. Which two pieces of information must be obtained to successfully complete this migration? (Choose
two.)
A. the PBX translations
B. the original planning forms for the system that runs on release 3.0
C. the latest analyzed DCT file for the system
D. the private Messaging Application Server (MAS) and Messaging Storage Server (MSS) NetBIOS name
Answer: B,C

Avaya기출문제   3200.1 pdf   3200.1시험문제

NO.10 Which backup type is supported for the Avaya Modular Messaging Single Server?
A. Type 2 or 4 DVD RAM cartridge
B. DVD-RW disk
C. FTP/SFTP backup
D. Norton Ghost
Answer: C

Avaya pdf   3200.1 dump   3200.1

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2013년 9월 29일 일요일

도비 HP HP2-T19 시험

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시험 번호/코드: HP2-T19
시험 이름: HP (HP BladeSystem Solutions [2010])
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Q&A: 154 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 DRAG DROP
Place each server blade on its recommended application type.
Answer:

NO.2 Which feature is supported by the zx2 chipset in the Integrity BL860c?
A. hot spare and hot-plug of memory DIMMs
B. up to 512GB of memory (not fully buffered DIMMs)
C. memory DIMM error correction (chip sparing)
D. 512-bit, 800MHz (800 MT/s, 1600MHz data rate) memory bus
Answer: C

HP   HP2-T19 pdf   HP2-T19   HP2-T19

NO.3 DRAG DROP
Place the preventive measure steps in the correct order.
Answer:

NO.4 HOTSPOT
Click on the SB600c All-in-One Storage Blade in the graphic.
Answer:

NO.5 Which full-height device bays are in Zone 3 of a c7000 enclosure?
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 5 and 6
D. 7 and 8
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of SB1760c Tape Blades that can be installed in a c7000 blade
enclosure?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.7 What happens when you turn the enclosure UID to "On" on the Insight Display of a c7000 enclosure?
A. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
B. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to blue.
C. The rear enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
D. The front enclosure UID LED illuminates and the color of the Insight Display changes to green.
Answer: A

HP dump   HP2-T19   HP2-T19

NO.8 Which connectivity type is supported to access Systems Management Architecture for the Server
Hardware (SMASH) Command Line Protocol? (Select three.)
A. serial
B. ftp
C. rcp
D. telnet
E. ssl
F. ssh
Answer: A, D, F

HP   HP2-T19   HP2-T19   HP2-T19자료   HP2-T19 pdf

NO.9 How does a c7000 enclosure retain air handling integrity when a server blade is removed?
A. The enclosure design uses blank panels to prevent air loss.
B. A blanking panel causes the air flow to reverse, allowing warmer air to escape.
C. The enclosure uses a self-closing door to prevent air loss.
D. The fans increase in revolutions per minute to increase air volume.
Answer: B

HP   HP2-T19   HP2-T19

NO.10 Which HP c-Class server blades take up two c3000 enclosure server bays? (Select two.)
A. BL860c
B. BL870c
C. BL685 G7
D. BL490 G6
E. BL2x220c G6
Answer: A, B

HP   HP2-T19   HP2-T19덤프

NO.11 Which interconnect can be used with the Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capability of the new G7
Series of c-Class blades?
A. HP 1/10Gb-F Virtual Connect Ethernet
B. HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet
C. Virtual Connect FlexFabric
D. HP ProCurve 6120G/XG interconnect
E. HP Virtual Connect FC Module
Answer: C

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NO.12 When should a performance baseline be captured?
A. after the initial installation of the equipment, during normal daily operation
B. after the initial installation of the equipment, during peak operating conditions
C. before and after each step of the initial installation of the equipment
D. three times a day during the first week following the initial installation of the equipment
Answer: A

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NO.13 HOTSPOT
Click on the component that provides remote enclosure management in c-Class enclosures.
Answer:

NO.14 Which HP BladeSystem component is used for power allocation and control for all blades and
interconnects?
A. Rack and Power Manager
B. Power Manager
C. Onboard Administrator
D. Insight Display
Answer: C

HP   HP2-T19   HP2-T19시험문제   HP2-T19

NO.15 Which processor type is used with the HP BL460c G6 Server Blade?
A. Dual-Core Intel Itanium Processor
B. Intel Xeon Processor
C. HP PA-RISC FSB, double data rate
D. AMD Opteron processor
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is needed to connect a Windows-based laptop to the c7000 or c3000 enclosure service port and
successfully communicate with the Onboard Administrator?
A. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a null modem cable
B. a laptop with the network interface set to DHCP and a standard CAT5 patch cable
C. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a CAT5 crossover
cable
D. a laptop with the network interface set to an address in the 192.168.1.x range and a standard CAT5
patch cable
Answer: B

HP   HP2-T19   HP2-T19시험문제

NO.17 Which feature of the BL465c G7 allows the server to accommodate 16 DIMM slots and retain the
half-height form factor?
A. PCIe Gen 2 x8 mezzanine expansion slots
B. AMD SR5690/SP5100 chipset
C. Hot Plug Drive Drawer
D. Smart Array P410i Controller with 1GB FBWC
Answer: B

HP인증   HP2-T19인증   HP2-T19

NO.18 Which HP blade comes with a license for Microsoft Cluster Server (MSCS)?
A. BL490c
B. BL870c
C. X3800sb
D. xw2x220c
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which utilities can be used to scan for malware on a Windows server? (Choose two.)
A. Snort
B. Ad-Aware
C. Postfix
D. Microsoft Network Monitor
E. Spybot
Answer: B, E

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NO.20 What is the maximum number of c3000 enclosures that can be installed in a 42U rack?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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HP HP2-B22 인증 덤프

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시험 번호/코드: HP2-B22
시험 이름: HP (IPG Sales Fundamentals v8.1)
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NO.1 Why has there been an increase in the use of color printing in business? (Select two.)
A. Businesses are printing more pictures.
B. It ischeaper than printing monochrome.
C. Fewer monochrome printers are available.
D. There are benefits of using color in documents.
E. There have been reductions in the cost of color printing.
Answer: D,E

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NO.2 What are the three main reasons why customers print?
A. habit, easy, cheap
B. habit, color, media
C. habit, communicate, legal
D. habit, easy to file, easy to discard
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP Color LaserJet advantage can be attributed to HP Color Sphere technology?
A. superior reliability
B. fastest first page out
C. lowest cost per page
D. highest rated print quality
Answer: D

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NO.4 How does the HP $3.6 billion R&D investment benefit HP resellers?
A. Accessories connect easily to HP devices.
B. HP devices have the biggest display screens.
C. Larger paper sizes are supported on HP devices.
D. Products and solutions create customer demand.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which printing trend is the result of the increase in original digital content.?
A. Fewer documents are being printed.
B. Business is not concerned about printing costs.
C. Documents are copied on paper and then distributed.
D. Documents are distributed electronically and then printed.
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is one result of the availability of digital content?
A. less need for paper documents
B. a decrease in the amount of printing
C. an increase in the amount of printing
D. more printed material included in product packages
Answer: B

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NO.7 What are the key printing technology trends?
A. color, convergence and networking
B. MFP, networking and AIO
C. VOIP, color, copying
D. digital fax, cluster print, AIO
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are accurate descriptions of a first impression in business? (Select two.)
A. always positive
B. easy to change
C. difficult to change
D. based upon detailed information
E. made in the first 5 to 30 seconds
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which imaging and printing process is becoming less important because of digital content?
A. printing
B. stapling
C. copying
D. scanning
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a new trend in imaging and printing document workflow?
A. printing booklets
B. scan to email
C. printing and then copying documents
D. distributing hard copies of documents by hand
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-M40
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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which page view does the exhibit display?
A. Monitor Status
B. Event Status
C. Server Monitor
D. System Status
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which port scanner do you use to discover network devices in HP Network Automation 9.0?
A. Nmap
B. Superscan
C. Unicornscan
D. Scanrand
Answer: A

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NO.3 Satellite Remote Agents send syslog messages to trigger a snapshot by an HP Network Automation
(NA) component.
What is this component?
A. NA Core associated with the satellite
B. Satellite Gateway host
C. NA Core hosting the database
D. host running the NA Core Management Engine
Answer: A

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NO.4 When you click Save Device, HP Network Automation automatically begins driver discovery using two
main access methods.
What is one of these access methods?
A. RMI
B. SCP
C. TFTP
D. CLI
Answer: D

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NO.5 To which entity are command permissions assigned?
A. Partitions
B. Realm
C. Roles
D. Users
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is one of the default roles included in HP Network Automation?
A. User Manager
B. Core Administrator
C. Device Manager
D. Limited Access
Answer: D

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NO.7 The IT Compliance Life Cycle in HP Network Automation has four stages. Which stage includes the
activity of establishing a workflow plan?
A. Discovery
B. Definition
C. Control
D. Maturity
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a main work area in the My Workspace Window?
A. Current Device Group
B. My Tasks
C. Current Work Flows
D. Search
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the term for multiple cores connected through database replication?
A. Site
B. Realm
C. Mesh
D. Partition
Answer: C

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NO.10 When a user is being created, several things must be configured and/or assigned. Which entity can a
user be assigned to during the creation process?
A. groups
B. roles
C. command permissions
D. script permissions
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: HP0-Y39
시험 이름: HP (Managing & Troubleshooting Enterprise Wireless Networks)
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NO.1 RF Manager has determined that a Rogue access point (AP) must be quarantined. The only sensor
within range is listed as busy. What happens?
A. RF Manager reclassifies the new Rogue AP as banned so that it cannot connect on the wired side.
B. RF Manager specifies that a quarantine is pending for the new Rogue AP until the sensor is no longer
busy.
C. The sensor stops quarantining one of the currently quarantined devices and starts quarantining the
new Rogue AP.
D. The sensor splits its time between blocking the currently quarantined devices and the new Rogue AP.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is experiencing network performance issues with their wireless network. The customer
decides to take corrective actions on their wireless active controller. Based on the exhibit, what will
happen on the wireless network if the customer sent a 1200 byte packet from a wireless client associated
to essid HP_Openaccess? (Select two.)
A. The wireless packet will be fragmented.
B. The wireless packet will trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
C. The wireless packet will not be fragmented.
D. The wireless packet will not trigger RTS/CTS frames to be sent.
E. The access point will send more Beacon frames than if the default configuration had been left
unchanged.
Answer: A,B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. All clients show maximum signal strength, but
some students are experiencing frequent interruptions of video playback. Based on the exhibits, what is a
solution to optimize network throughput for all students.?
A. setting maximum power on radio 1 on all APs
B. setting mandatory data rates for 802.11a to 12
C. changing the channel on radio 2 of AP5 to channel 6
D. lowering the RTS threshold on all radios
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer reports the performance of their HP A-WA2620E access point (AP) is inadequate. While
investigating the report, you determine that the AP is functioning in MIMO 3x2 mode instead of MIMO 3x3
as desired. What is one possible cause of this problem?
A. The AP is powered using 802.3af PoE.
B. The AP is configured to use a 40Mhz channel bandwidth.
C. The AP is not implementing the local switching feature.
D. The AP is powered using 802.3at PoE.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Students running 802.11n clients are not seeing
optimal bandwidth connection data rates. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize 802.11n
data rates?
A. Disable High Throughput (HT mode) on all radios.
B. Disable RTS/CTS capability on non-802.11n client NICs.
C. Configure Band Steering mode on radio 1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
D. Configure Greenfield mode on radio1 on all APs and radio 2 on AP3 and AP5.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button and view the three exhibits.
RF Manager and its sensors have detected an association between an Uncategorized Client and an
access point (AP) that uses these settings:
SSID = Company C
Security = WPA2 with CCMP and 802.1X
The AP is detected while passing the client traffic on VLAN 20 (10.1.20.0/24). WiFi is permitted at this
location. The exhibits show the Authorized SSID Template, other Authorized WLAN Policy settings, and
the Intrusion Prevention Policy for the location.
What does RF Manager have its sensors do?
A. quarantine the AP only
B. quarantine the client only
C. take no action against either device
D. quarantine both the AP and the client
Answer: A

HP   HP0-Y39   HP0-Y39   HP0-Y39

NO.7 By default, which roles do the RF Manager and its sensors perform in detecting Rogue access points
(APs)?
A. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your network.
B. Sensors monitor wireless transmissions and RF Manager monitors wired transmissions. They combine
the data to find unauthorized APs on your network.
C. Sensors monitor wired and wireless transmissions so RF Manager can find unauthorized APs
connected to your wired network.
D. Sensors detect APs that use your SSIDs but are not on your Authorized AP list.
Answer: C

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NO.8 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN
policy?
A. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect the locations of harmful devices, instead of
drawing on the findings of network detectors. This might make the prediction less accurate.
B. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
C. RF Manager might classify your own access points (APs) as Rogue APs because their transmit power
is too high and take action against them.
D. RF Manager might classify legitimate access points (APs) owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs
and take action against them.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Wireless access points (APs) are
installed to provide access to the school's video servers. Some students are experiencing frequent
interruptions to video playback while others have no issues. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to
optimize performance for all students?
A. Set all radios to maximum power.
B. Set all APs to the same channel.
C. Enable load balancing of clients across APs.
D. Increase the beacon interval.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which action does RF Manager take to quarantine a client?
A. It instructs the client's access point to place the client's traffic in a quarantine VLAN.
B. It instructs a sensor to send a forced disassociation message to the client's access point (AP) so that
the AP forces the client to disconnect.
C. It instructs a sensor to send frames to interfere with the frames sent by the quarantined client.
D. It adds the client's MAC address to the access point's MAC lockout list, thereby blocking the client's
traffic.
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the risk of applying intrusion prevention to an access point (AP) listed as Indeterminate?
A. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP follows your Authorized WLAN policy. You might
quarantine your own AP, which could frustrate users.
B. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because you authorized it manually, but it does not
follow your Authorized WLAN policy.
Quarantining your own AP could frustrate users.
C. RF Manager has classified the AP as Indeterminate because its signal is so low. Sensors will make
themselves busy in quarantining an AP that is probably too far away to be a risk.
D. RF Manager cannot determine whether the AP is connected to your system. You might quarantine
another company's AP, which is illegal.
Answer: D

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NO.12 You set your country of operation and then apply the default Sensor Configuration Template settings to
all sensors in RF Manager. How do your sensors handle channels that cannot be used legally in your
country?
A. The sensors scan these channels and detect threats, but they do not take action against the threats.
B. The sensors scan these channels, detect threats, and take the action you have specified against any
detected threats.
C. The sensors scan these channels and prevent any authorized access points or clients from operating
on these channels.
D. The sensors do not scan these channels for threats.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button and view both exhibits.
A university media course uses an auditorium that seats 400 students. Students are experiencing slow
network performance, and some clients are having difficulty connecting to the wireless network. The IT
staff installed wireless access points (APs) over a year ago. Previous classes, consisting of 200 students
had no problems. Based on the exhibits, what is a solution to optimize performance for all students?
A. Enable radio 1 on all APs.
B. Add service-template1 to all 2.4Ghz radios.
C. Remove service-template1 from all 5Ghz radios.
D. Set cipher-suite to ccmp for service-template1.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What are the requirements for deploying a sensor that is discovered by RF Manager with zero
configuration? (Select two.)
A. The sensor must operate in network detector (ND) mode.
B. The sensor must be installed on the same VLAN as RF Manager.
C. The network must be set up to assign the sensor IP settings through DHCP.
D. The DNS server must map the WiFi-security-server to the RF Manager IP address.
E. RF Manager and the sensor must both be at their default IP settings.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 In sensor only (SO) mode, what does an HP sensor monitor?
A. It monitors only one untagged VLAN as well as wireless signals.
B. It monitors wireless signals, but does not monitor VLANs.
C. It monitors multiple VLANs as well as wireless signals.
D. It monitors multiple VLANs, but does not monitor wireless signals.
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: HP2-Z19
시험 이름: HP (Implementing HP Network Security Solutions)
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Q&A: 121 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 A security administrator at a university has been tasked with identifying the TippingPoint IPS that
would best meet the university's needs. The university has a complex network, with a mixture of both fiber
and copper wiring. IPS protection must be provided for three copper segments and two fiber segments.
The aggregate bandwidth (with expansion capacity) is not expected to exceed 3Gbps over the next four
years.
Which TippingPoint IPS solution should the security administrator recommend?
A. 2 TippingPoint 330s and 1 TippingPoint 600E
B. TippingPoint 5000E or TippingPoint 5100N
C. TippingPoint SMS
D. TippingPoint 5100N only
Answer: D

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NO.2 A security administrator for a TippingPoint IPS suspects that an employee has logged into the IPS and
altered its configuration. How can the security administrator analyze and undo all of the unauthorized
changes?
A. by reviewing the IPS system log, searching for filter hits from the employee
B. by reviewing the IPS audit log, filtering by the employee ¯ s use r na m e and / o r I P adress
C. by reviewing the configuration changes listed in the IPS alert log
D. by reviewing the IPS block log (the employee would have been blocked)
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which remote management interface on an E-Series switch can be secured by enabling Secure
Sockets Layer (SSL)?
A. console
B. menu
C. web management
D. Telnet
Answer: C

HP   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19

NO.4 What are benefits of implementing Secure Socket Shell (SSH) for remote management of HP switches?
(Select two.)
A. user accounting
B. encryption of management traffic
C. stronger passwords
D. enforcement of management VLAN
E. secure authentication
F. encryption of all traffic
Answer: B,E

HP   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19 pdf   HP2-Z19

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit below.
You enter the following command at the switch ¯ s C L I: E5406 ( v l a-100)# no untag a24
Why does this command fail?
A. Port A24 is not a member of VLAN 100.
B. Port A24 must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. VLAN 100 must have at least one port member.
D. no untag a24 is an invalid CLI command.
Answer: B

HP   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19

NO.6 You are at the manager level prompt in the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch. Which options are available at
this prompt? (Select two.)
A. assign IP address to VLAN interface
B. enable IP routing
C. restart the switch
D. disable ports
E. update software
Answer: C,E

HP인증   HP2-Z19자료   HP2-Z19

NO.7 Multiple user accounts can be created on an IPS device. Each can be assigned to one of three roles:
super-user, administrator, or operator. Which statements are true about these roles? (Select two.)
A. An administrator can reset the audit log.
B. A super-user can create new accounts and edit existing account passwords.
C. An operator is a view-only role.
D. Only the super-user can reboot an IPS.
Answer: B,C

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NO.8 What is the effect of the following commands entered at the CLI of an HP E8212 zl switch with routing
and RIP enabled?E8212(rip)# redistribute ospf
A. The switch will filter OSPF routes from RIP updates received from peers.
B. The switch will include routes learned through OSPF in all RIP updates.
C. The switch will include routes learned through RIP in all OSPF link-state messages.
D. The switch will give preference to OSPF routes over RIP routes in its route table.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the serial console speed of an IPS?
A. 9600
B. 19200
C. 115,200
D. user configurable
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which security technology requires that you set read/write community names?
A. SFTP
B. SSH
C. SNMP
D. HTTPS
E. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which categories of routing protocols include RIP and OSPF? (Select two.)
A. exterior gateway
B. link state
C. label switching
D. distance vector
E. interior gateway
Answer: A,E

HP   HP2-Z19인증   HP2-Z19

NO.12 How can the TippingPoint Threat Management Center (TMC) be accessed? (Select three.)
A. directly by your SMS, if your SMS has a valid TMC username/password
B. by anyone with a browser and valid TMC username/password
C. using an FTP client
D. directly by your IPS
E. directly by your SMS, as your SMS does not need a TMC username/password
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.13 What does the Threat Management Center (TMC) allow you to do? (Select three.)
A. Download TOS images.
B. Access knowledgebase articles.
C. Remotely log in to your IPS.
D. Download Digital Vaccines.
E. Download custom Digital Vaccines.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.14 By default, what is an IPS single super-user called?
A. By default, the single super-user is called root.
B. By default, the single super-user is called SuperUser.
C. By default, the single super-user is called admin.
D. There is no default user.
Answer: D

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NO.15 You make configuration changes to the running configuration of your HP E3500 yl switch. Which
command saves these changes to your startup configuration?
A. save running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. write memory
D. write config
Answer: C

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NO.16 Refer to the exhibit below.
What is indicated by this entry in the IP route table of an HP E8212 zl switch?
A. The switch has been configured with an ACL that blocks communications with the loopback interfaces.
B. The switch does not permit communications with any loopback interface.
C. Traffic to this interface is rejected with the single exception of traffic to the host address of the switch ¯ s
loopback interface (127.0.0.1/ 32).
D. A loopback interface is configured with 127.0.0.0.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Refer to the exhibit below.
You have configured IP helper addresses for VLAN 5 and VLAN 6 on this HP E5406 zl switch. However,
users in these VLANs report that their computers are not receiving DHCP addresses. Which feature must
be enabled to address this problem?
A. DNS
B. DHCP relay
C. IP routing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: B

HP자료   HP2-Z19   HP2-Z19기출문제
6.Port B1 on an HP ProCurve 5406zl switch is an untagged member of VLAN 155 and not a tagged
member of any VLAN. Port C1 is a tagged member of VLAN 155 and an untagged member of VLAN 100.
You issue the following command:
5406.l(config)# no vlan 155
Why do you receive the following prompt?
The following ports will be moved to the default VLAN:
B1Do you want to continue? [y/n]:
A. The CLI always issues this prompt when deleting a VLAN.
B. The CLI will not allow you to orphan a port.
C. The CLI will not delete a VLAN with any port membership.
D. All ports must be moved to the default VLAN before you can delete the VLAN.
Answer: A

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NO.18 You must update the software on an HP E3500 yl switch. Which devices can be sources for the copy
command? (Select two.)
A. USB flash drive
B. management workstation hard drive
C. TFTP server
D. FTP server
E. Compact Flash card
Answer: A,C

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NO.19 Which E-Series CLI commands enable you to view all show commands available in the current context?
(Select two.)
A. Switch# show /?
B. Switch# show all
C. Switch# show help
D. Switch# show ?
E. Switch# show <tab>
F. Switch# help show
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 Which HP E-Series switch models display the following prompt in the interface configuration context?
(Select two.)HP Switch(eth-A24)#
A. E8212 zl
B. E6600-24G
C. E5412-96G zl
D. E2910-24G al
E. E3500-48G-POE yl
Answer: A,B,E

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Q&A: 144 문항
업데이트: 2013-09-28

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NO.1 What is an advantage of locating intelligent routing at the edge of an enterprise network instead of only
in the core?
A. The edge-oriented strategy supports VRRP and MSTP for default gateway redundancy.
B. The edge-oriented strategy requires fewer VLANs and networks.
C. The edge-oriented strategy simplifies route summarization because only routers must support VLANs
only for directly connected users.
D. The edge-oriented strategy allows traffic to traverse the network after the routing decisions have been
made.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is one security challenge that is specifically addressed by dynamically refreshing encryption keys?
A. Users forget their passwords and forget how to connect.
B. Hackers are more likely to crack a key when they have many frames encrypted with that key.
C. Asymmetric keys, which are more secure than symmetric keys, must be distributed dynamically.
D. Static encryptions keys can protect data's privacy, but not its integrity.
Answer: B

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NO.3 A company ¯ s he l p desk r eques t s access t o t he w eb i n t e rf ace o f va ri ous ne t w o r k i ng dev i ces . The
network administrator decides to implement a secure web interface using SSL. Which step is necessary
to complete this task on an HP E5400 zl switch?
A. import the certificate authority certificate
B. configure RADIUS for user login
C. generate a self-signed certificate
D. enable SSH
Answer: C

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NO.4 You must provide the capability for the Virtual IP address to be pinged if the Backup router assumes
the Master role when the Owner router fails. What is necessary to ensure this operation?
A. E8206(config)# router vrrp virtual-ip-ping
B. E8206(config)# vrrp 10 virtual-ip-ping
C. E8206(config)# router virtual-ip
D. E8206(config)# router ospf ip-ping
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which statement is true about the HP E5400 zl switch Connection-rate Filtering feature?
A. It detects threats with both a signature-based engine and an anomaly-based engine that can detect
zero day attacks.
B. A connection-rate ACL can be used to allow some or all inbound traffic through a port that has been
throttled or blocked.
C. It uses sFlow traffic sampling to determine whether traffic activity represents an intrusion.
D. The connection-rate filter sensitivity is configurable per port, VLAN, or link aggregation group.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which default gateway redundancy protocol is supported on HP E5400 zl switches?
A. XRRP
B. HSRP
C. VRRP
D. FSRP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Your CIO wants you to investigate IT defense in depth. What does this mean?
A. You need to purchase a deep-packet inspection Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).
B. You need to upgrade your firewalls to next-generation firewalls.
C. You need to plan a comprehensive strategy that addresses security at many layers.
D. You need to leverage the network infrastructure built-in security features rather than look for
appliance-based solutions.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You must configure an HP E5406 zl switch to be the Owner of a VRID associated with VLAN 20. What
must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID?
A. It must use an address on a multi-netted VLAN interface.
B. It must match the router's address on the VLAN 20 interface.
C. It must use a classless address.
D. It must match the address assigned to VLAN 20 on the Backup router.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator needs to create an ACL to block traffic from 192.168.10.23 to 192.168.10.100, which
are on the same subnet. Which type of ACL can be used to meet this need?
A. a standard ACL applied as Routed ACL (RACL)
B. an extended ACL applied as a Routed ACL (RACL)
C. a standard ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
D. an extended ACL applied as a VLAN ACL (VACL)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which mechanism enables two parties to agree on a symmetric key on their own without transmitting it
over the network?
A. Kerberos
B. Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C. Diffie-Hellman exchange
D. Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
Answer: C

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NO.11 You have an HP Networking Switch E5400 zl that has two configured VLANs. VLAN 100 has an IP
address range of 10.1.100.0/24 and is where the servers reside. VLAN 36 has an IP address range of
10.1.36.0/24 and is where the network clients reside. You configure an ACL with the following entries:
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq https
permit tcp 10.1.36.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.100.10 255.255.255.255 eq ssh
When you apply this ACL statically to ports in VLAN 36, what is the effect on the clients located in VLAN
36?
A. They have no access because the ACL is misconfigured.
B. They cannot access anything in the 10.1.100.0 subnet because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
C. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but no access elsewhere.
D. They are allowed only FTP, HTTPS, and SSH access to 10.1.100.10, but full access to everything else
in the 10.1.100.0 subnet.
Answer: C

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NO.12 When the following command is issued at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl switch at factory default settings,
which Spanning Tree version is enabled?
E5406(config)# spanning-tree
A. STP+
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. RSTP
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which RADIUS packet includes the Attribute Value Pairs (AVPs) that are applied to customize a user
connection?
A. Access-Update
B. Access-Request
C. Accounting-Request
D. Access-Accept
Answer: D

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NO.14 An administrator has been tasked with implementing a dynamic port ACL on an HP E5400 zl Series
switch. Which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. It can be implemented as either a standard or extended ACL.
B. It filters switched IP traffic either inbound or outbound on a designated port.
C. It requires the use of 802.1X, Web, or MAC authentication services on the switch.
D. It is used where clients with differing access needs are likely to use the same port.
E. Configuration of the ACL is done on the switch and then read dynamically by a RADIUS server when a
user connects.
F. It can be applied to either a single physical port or to a link aggregation group.
Answer: C,D

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NO.15 Which authentication protocol provides mutual authentication for both the supplicant and the
authentication server?
A. Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B. Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C. Microsoft CHAP version 2 (MS-CHAPv2)
D. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)-Message Digest 5 (MD5)
Answer: C

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NO.16 How does the Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) improve network availability?
A. by providing redundant links between edge and core layers
B. by providing redundant connections to the Internet
C. by providing backup default gateways for client devices
D. by supporting the configuration of redundant gateways on VRRP-enabled clients
Answer: C

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NO.17 HP E5400 zl switches have the ability to mirror traffic from one switch to another. Which action should
you take when implementing remote mirroring?
A. Configure a connection-rate filter.
B. Enable the instrumentation monitor.
C. Enable jumbo frames.
D. Enable a bandwidth limit.
Answer: C

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NO.18 When a router must determine which route to include in its route table, when does the router use
administrative distance in the decision.?
A. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from static configurations or
different routing protocols
B. when the router has learned about multiple routes from equal-cost paths to the same destination
C. when the router is configured with static routes to the same destination that specify the same cost but
different next hop router interfaces
D. when the router has learned about multiple routes to the same destination from different sources using
the same routing protocol
Answer: A

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NO.19 Routed ACLs (RACLs) can be used to filter traffic on an HP E5400 zl switch. Which traffic is
inspected?
A. routed IP traffic arriving on one VLAN and leaving through another VLAN
B. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same VLAN
C. IP traffic entering a physical port, port list, or static trunk
D. switched IP traffic moving between ports belonging to the same subnet of a multinetted VLAN
Answer: A

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NO.20 You must configure four HP E8212 zl switches and six HP E5406 zl switches to support Multiple
Instance Spanning Tree (MSTP) on a network. What must you do to ensure that all the switches join the
same MST region?
A. Configure the switches with identical Uplink Priorities for common switch-to-switch links.
B. Configure Bridge Priorities on each switch so that all MST instances have a different Root Bridge.
C. Configure the switches with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance mappings.
D. Configure all switch-to-switch links in each MST instance as tagged members of all VLANs.
Answer: C

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