2013년 12월 23일 월요일

JN0-314 덤프 Juniper 인증 시험

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-314
시험 이름: Juniper (Junos Pulse Access Control, Specialist (JNCIS-AC))
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Q&A: 115 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-22

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NO.1 What is the function of Host Checker?
A. To allow clientless access to the network
B. To restrict access to protected resources on the network
C. To scan an endpointfor compliance with security policies
D. To push a firewall policy to the endpoint's local firewall application
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have a firewall enforcer protecting resources in a data center. A user is experiencing difficulty
connecting to a protected resource.
Which two elements must exist so the user can access the resource? (Choose two.)
A. Resource access policy on the MAG Series device
B. IPsec routing policy on the MAG Series device
C. General traffic policy blocking access through the firewall enforcer
D. Auth table entry on the firewall enforcer
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the cause of the error shown in the exhibit?
A. A RADIUS request is being received from a device that is not configured on the RADIUS Client page.
B. A user entered an incorrect password during RADIUS authentication.
C. A RADIUS proxy attempt failed to reach the configured proxy server.
D. The RADIUS shared secret is incorrect.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is trying to decide which 802.1X inner protocol to use on their network. The customer
requires that no passwords be sent across the network in plain text, that the protocol be supported by the
Windows native supplicant, and that the protocol supports password changes at Layer 2.
Which protocol would meet the customer's needs?
A. EAP-TLS
B. EAP-MD5
C. PAP
D. EAP-MSCHAPv2
Answer: D

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NO.5 You are configuring an IPsec routing policy that will be used with a ScreenOS firewall enforcer. What
must you also configure?
A. Source IP policies on the ScreenOS device
B. ScreenOS IPsec policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C. VPN NAT traversal on the ScreenOS device
D. Source interface policies on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a type of firewall enforcer supported by the Junos Pulse Access Control Service.?
A. Checkpoint firewall
B. SRX Series device
C. DP sensor
D. MX Series device
Answer: A

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NO.7 A user's Junos Pulse client uses 802.1X to access a wired network and is failing to authenticate. You
run a packet capture from the user's PC and notice that immediately after the client machine sends an
EAPoL-start packet, an EAP-failure packet is returned. You review the RADIUS troubleshooting logs on
the MAG Series device and do not see any authentication attempts from the user. Other users on the
same Ethernet switch are successfully authenticating.
Which device is sending the EAP-failure packet to the workstation?
A. The RADIUS server
B. The EAPoL server
C. The workstation's network adapter
D. The Ethernet switch
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three settings are accessible from the serial console menu on a MAG Series device? (Choose
three.)
A. The ping command
B. Factory default reset
C. Personality image
D. License imports
E. Admin login credentials
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.9 You want to ensure that users who access the company's protected resources present a client
certificate before they are allowed to sign in.
What should you configure?
A. A certificate authentication policy that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the
user is signed in.
B. A certificate authentication policy that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted
client CA to sign in.
C. A certificate role restriction that allows all users and remembers certificate information while the user is
signed in.
D. A certificate role restriction that only allows users with a client-side certificate signed by a trusted client
CA to sign in.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You navigate to "UAC" > "Infranet Enforcer" > "Auth Table Mapping" in the admin GUI. You see one
policy, which is the unmodified, original default policy.
Which statement is true?
A. Dynamic auth table mapping is not enabled.
B. A successful authentication attempt will result in a new authentication table entry, which will be
delivered only to the Junos enforcer protecting the network from which the user has authenticated.
C. To create a static auth table mapping, you must delete the default policy.
D. The default policy applies only to the factory-default role User.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You have a Junos Pulse Secure Access Service acting as an IF-MAP client, configured to federate all
user roles to a Junos Pulse Access Control Service acting as an IF-MAP Federation server. A remote user
using Junos Pulse logs in to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service; the Junos Pulse Secure Access
Service provisions a remote access session for that user.
What happens next?
A. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service redirects the user to the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
for authentication
B. The Junos Pulse Access Control Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
C. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service publishes user session and role information to the IFMAP
Federation server,
D. The Junos Pulse Secure Access Service provisions enforcement points to enable resource access for
that user.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer has purchased a third-party switch to use for Layer 2 access with their Junos Pulse Access
Control Service. When configuring the switch on the Junos Pulse Access Control Service, the customer
does not find a make/model entry for it.
Which two actions should the customer take to make the switch work with the Junos Pulse Access Control
Service? (Choose two.)
A. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service as a standard RADIUS.
B. Add the switch to the Junos Pulse Access Control Service using the "Any" make/model.
C. Add the switch as a firewall enforcer.
D. Obtain and configure the RADIUS dictionary for the switch and use that vendor listing for the
make/model.
Answer: A,D

Juniper   JN0-314   JN0-314시험문제

NO.13 What are two ways to access the Junos Pulse Access Control Service? (Choose two.)
A. admin GUI
B. Telnet
C. SSH
D. console
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 A customer wants to create a custom Junos Pulse configuration. Which two are required? (Choose two)
A. Connection set
B. Configuration set
C. Custom installer
D. Component set
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 You are configuring an active/passive cluster of SRX Series devices as the firewall enforcer on a MAG
Series device. Which statement is true?
A. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single serial number of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
B. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with both serial numbers of the clustered SRX Series
devices defined in the configuration.
C. Multiple Infranet Enforcer instances are created with a single IP address of an SRX Series device
defined in each configuration.
D. A single Infranet Enforcer instance is created with the VIP of the clustered SRX Series device defined
in the configuration.
Answer: B

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JN0-533 덤프 Juniper 자격증 덤프

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-533
시험 이름: Juniper (FWV, Specialist (JNCIS-FWV))
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일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 110 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-22

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NO.1 -- Exhibit -set admin name "admin" set admin password "nOsYMqrbAs/McFsJrs6HwcIt3AF6yn"
set admin user "User1" password "nLZwKErINPPCcphC6sFMXrJ" privilege "read-only" set admin port
8080 set admin access attempts 5 set admin access lock-on-failure 5 set admin auth web timeout 10
set admin auth server "Local" -- Exhibit -
User1 wants to create the policy in the ScreenOS device, but is not successful. Referring to the
exhibit, what is the problem?
A. The User1 account has been suspended.
B. User1 does not have any account in this device.
C. User1 logged in to the device with wrong port.
D. User1 does not have the proper permission to create a policy.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about policy-based VPNs as compared to route-based IPsec
VPNs when using ScreenOS devices? (Choose two.)
A. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
B. For route-based IPsec VPNs, you can configure 0.0.0.0/ 0 as the proxy ID on both VPN gateways
regardless of the security policy.
C. For route-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
D. For policy-based IPsec VPNs, the proxy ID is derived from the policy.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based
routing table or the destination-based routing table.
What should you do?
A. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B. Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the
outgoing interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D. Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two configuration elements are synchronized between the members of an NSRP cluster?
(Choose two.)
A. interface IP addresses
B. hostname
C. track IP configuration
D. static routes
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two statements are true regarding the route shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a source route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trustvr.
B. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a destination route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the
trust-vr.
C. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a SIBR route with a next-hop IP address of 1.1.1.1 in the trust-vr.
D. 5.5.5.0/ 24 was configured as a permanent source route.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the appropriate VPN monitor status?
A. The VPN is active and the peer is down.
B. The VPN is active and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
C. The VPN is active and the peer is up.
D. The VPN is inactive and VPN Monitor is not configured for the peer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about VPN Monitor on a ScreenOS device? (Choose two.)
A. With a route-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
B. With a policy-based VPN failure, VPN Monitor marks the tunnel interface status as down.
C. VPN Monitor uses UDP to detect a VPN connection failure.
D. VPN Monitor uses ICMP to detect a VPN connection failure.
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 HostA is in the Trust zone and has an IP address of. ServerA is a Web server in the DMZ zone
and has an IP address of.
Which three configuration statements are required to allow traffic from HostA to communicate with
ServerA? (Choose three.)
A. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
B. ssg5-> set policy from DMZ to Trust ANY ANY ANY permit
C. ssg5-> set address DMZ ServerA / 32
D. ssg5-> set policy from Trust to DMZ HostA ServerA HTTP permit
E. ssg5-> set address Trust HostA / 32
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.9 You have configured integrated Web filtering in the ScreenOS software. A URL appears in the
blacklist, the whitelist, and a user-defined category. Additionally, the device can obtain
categorization information from the SurfControl server.
Which configuration will the device use to determine the action to take for Web requests for the
URL?
A. the blacklist
B. the SurfControl categorization
C. the user-defined category
D. the whitelist
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, you have configured the MIP address 1.1.8.64 on a ScreenOS device.
Which statement is correct?
A. It performs one-to-one address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64.
B. It performs one-to-many address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to a range from 10.1.10.64 to
10.1.10.71.
C. It performs range address translation and maps 1.1.8.64 to 10.1.10.64, 1.1.8.65 to 10.1.10.65,
etc..
D. It performs address translation using a random IP address from the pool for 10.1.10.64 / 29.
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: JN0-690
시험 이름: Juniper (Junos Troubleshooting)
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NO.1 What is the name of the routing protocol process on a Junos OS device?
A. chassisd
B. snmpd
C. rpd
D. cosd
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which operational command would be used to display diagnostic data and alarms for 1 /10/100
Gigabit Ethernet optical transceivers?
A. show interfaces extensive
B. show interfaces diagnostics optics
C. show chassis alarms
D. show interfaces controller
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which three steps are involved in troubleshooting any problem? (Choose three.)
A. Reboot the device.
B. Clearly define the problem.
C. Outline the expected behavior.
D. Determine who made the changes.
E. Isolate the problem.
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 Which command would be helpful in determining the time at which the protocols started?
A. show route
B. show chassis hardware
C. show configuration
D. show system uptime
Answer: D

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NO.5 In the Junos OS, which type of file dumps the program's environment in the form of
memory pointers, instructions, and register data to a file in the event of a panic or other serious
malfunction?
A. log file
B. backup file
C. configuration file
D. core file
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which operational CLI command would you use to troubleshoot hardware-related problems?
A. show system
B. show chassis
C. show route
D. show cli
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which operational CLI command would you use to display information about the system and
software processes?
A. show system
B. show chassis
C. show route
D. show cli
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which CLI command applies the candidate configuration to the active configuration?
A. load
B. merge
C. copy run start
D. commit
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is correct about troubleshooting?
A. You must always have a complete understanding of the problem before you begin gathering any
information.
B. You must be sure the problem will be resolved before attempting a potential solution.
C. The problem must be reproducible before attempting a potential solution.
D. Establishing a network baseline is important to help understand when something is not working.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which CLI command is used to restart a software process?
A. restart
B. reboot
C. commit
D. reload
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 630-007
시험 이름: ISM (C.P.M. Module 3: Value Enhancement Strategies)
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NO.1 Which of the following represents the MAIN reason why a fully documented
permanent summary record of a "make-or-buy" analysis should be maintained?
A. To respond to charges of favoritism by unsuccessful bidders.
B. To serve as a useful source of information in future situations.
C. To support cost-of-goods-sold (CGS) figures for tax purposes.
D. To justify the participation of all departments that were involved in the analysis.
Answer. C

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NO.2 Which of the following should a purchaser utilize when there is a need to minimize
financial risk in a sensitive market?
A. Cash flow management.
B. Long-term relationships.
C. Market demand analysis.
D. Hedging using futures contracts.
Answer. D

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NO.3 What is generally the PRIMARY motivation for outsourcing in the health care
sector?
A. To reduce technological risk.
B. To shift patient liability.
C. To reduce labor costs.
D. To implement JIT.
Answer. C

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NO.4 Which of the following is the MOST commonly sought-after piece of inventory
information?
A. The date the inventory is taken.
B. The current price of the items.
C. Inventory I.D. numbers.
D. Quantities.
Answer. D

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NO.5 Which of the following can be used to spot abnormalities in a process, as well as
compare actual measurements to customer or engineering specifications, and show
if a distribution is centered at an expected place?
A. Pareto charts.
B. Area graphs.
C. Histograms.
D. Pie graphs.
Answer. C

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NO.6 Which of the following favors making the part in a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. When design secrecy is required.
B. When volume requirements are small.
C. When production facilities are limited.
D. When there is a desire to maintain a multiple-source policy.
Answer. A

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NO.7 When would a purchasing manager generally use a third-party lease as a financing
instrument?
A. When purchasing equipment from the manufacturer with someone else's money.
B. When acquiring equipment from one party and maintenance from another.
C. When arranging an assignment agreement with a bank.
D. When transferring the asset to the internal customer.
Answer. A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. An operational lease has a non-cancelable term varying from hours to years.
B. An operational lease is a total financial commitment by the lessor.
C. In operational leases, payments are fixed payments per period.
D. Operational leases stress service.
Answer. B

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NO.9 Which of the following BEST describes the difference between evaluation of a
product and value analysis?
A. Value analysis is more concerned with "make-or-buy" issues.
B. Evaluation of a product is more concerned with cost issues.
C. Value analysis focuses more on economy and efficiency.
D. Value analysis is more concerned with product liability.
Answer. C

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NO.10 Which of the following represents the BEST strategy for minimizing price risk in a
falling market?
A. Hedging.
B. Forward buying.
C. Hand-to-mouth buying.
D. Buying to requirements.
Answer. C

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NO.11 When is the timing of purchases MOST important?
A. When a market has price and supply stability.
B. When a market has price and supply instability.
C. When a market has unstable supply with predictable prices.
D. When a market has reasonably stable supply with substantial fluctuation in prices.
Answer. C

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NO.12 Which of the following are the two basic categories of costs associated with
inventories from a management point of view?
A. Supplies and services costs.
B. Storage and incremental costs.
C. Carrying costs and acquisition costs.
D. Obsolescence and deterioration costs.
Answer. C

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NO.13 You work as a purchaser at KillTest. You are negotiating a contract for which
production and delivery will be stretched out over a 24-month period. You want to
get the best price. Which of the following should you include in the contract?
A. A provision to accept all material produced under the contract.
B. A provision to cover changes in rates for material and labor.
C. A provision to eliminate penalties for late deliveries.
D. A provision to cover unforeseen production delays.
Answer. B

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NO.14 Which of the following do NOT provide economic forecasts?
A. ISM Report On Business(r).
B. Bureau of Labor Statistics.
C. Department of Commerce.
D. Thomas Register.
Answer. D

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NO.15 Which of the following is the FIRST step in standardization?
A. Collecting data.
B. Simplifying standards.
C. Establishing objectives.
D. Publicizing the program.
Answer. A

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NO.16 Which of the following criteria would a project or process targeted for improvement
generally NOT meet?
A. It is in the process of change.
B. It is relevant to a key product or service issue.
C. It is within the control or influence of the team.
D. It is likely to contribute to organizational goals.
Answer. A

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NO.17 KillTest has been experiencing numerous stockouts on a production item.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to cause this problem?
A. Faulty sales forecasts.
B. Incorrect order points.
C. Increased supplier prices.
D. Problems with incoming shipments.
Answer. C

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NO.18 Which of the following should generally make a "make-or-buy" decision?
A. Engineering Management.
B. Purchasing Management.
C. Production Management.
D. General Management.
Answer. D

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT an appropriate consideration when seeking to
mitigate seasonal capacity issues?
A. Safety stock levels.
B. Transportation costs.
C. Forecasting accuracy.
D. Seasonal sales forecasts.
Answer. B

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NO.20 Which of the following represents the MOST common reason for a public or
nonprofit corporation to use lease/purchase agreements to obtain equipment?
A. To gain tax advantages.
B. To avoid capital expenditures.
C. To reduce maintenance needs.
D. To gain depreciation advantages.
Answer. B

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시험 번호/코드: CPSM
시험 이름: ISM (Certified Professional in Supply Management (CPSM))
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다른 방식으로 같은 목적을 이룰 수 있다는 점 아세요? 여러분께서는 어떤 방식, 어느 길을 선택하시겠습니까? 많은 분들은ISM인증CPSM시험패스로 자기 일에서 생활에서 한층 업그레이드 되기를 바랍니다. 하지만 모두 다 알고계시는그대로ISM인증CPSM시험은 간단하게 패스할 수 있는 시험이 아닙니다. 많은 분들이ISM인증CPSM시험을 위하여 많은 시간과 정신력을 투자하고 있습니다. 하지만 성공하는 분들은 적습니다.

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ISM인증 CPSM시험은 IT인증자격증중 가장 인기있는 자격증을 취득하는 필수시험 과목입니다. ISM인증 CPSM시험을 패스해야만 자격증 취득이 가능합니다. ITExamDump의ISM인증 CPSM는 최신 시험문제 커버율이 높아 시험패스가 아주 간단합니다. ISM인증 CPSM덤프만 공부하시면 아무런 우려없이 시험 보셔도 됩니다. 시험합격하면 좋은 소식 전해주세요.

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NO.1 The process of coordinating the organization, planning, scheduling, controlling, monitoring
and evaluating of activities so that the objectives of a project are met is known as:
A. Project Life cycle
B. Project Executive
C. Project Management
D. Project Organization
Answer: C

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NO.2 A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service is called:
A. Project
B. Build
C. Enterprise
D. Development
Answer: A

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NO.3 According to Project Management Institute, which of the following is NOT the process group
of project?
Initiating
B. Organizing
C. Executing
D. Closing
Answer: B

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NO.4 Contract statement of work is the output of which process group?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Monitoring
D. Closing
Answer: A

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NO.5 Organizations less familiar with the discipline of project management usually begin by creating
task forces or committees within each role to tackle problem, known as:
A. Procurement Management
B. Functional structure
C. Procedural structure
D. Performance Management
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: BH0-006
시험 이름: ISEB (ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
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NO.1 The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Service Strategy
C.Service Design
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.3 Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A.Processes and functions
B.Maturity and cost
C.The end to end service
D.Infrastructure availability WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Provider Type?
A.Internal service provider
B.External service provider
C.Third-party provider
D.Shared services unit WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 The BEST definition of an Incident is:
A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
C.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.Yes
B.No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C.No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D.No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problemWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned
by which set of activities?
A.Baseline assessments
B.Service and process improvements
C.Taking measurements and recording metrics
D.Setting measurement targetsWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.8 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.9 What would you use the seven Rs of Change Management for?
A.To assist with the impact analysis for a Change request
B.To review changes after they have been implemented
C.To allocate the roles and responsibilities during the Change Management process
D.To act as a framework for implementing a ChangeWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.10 Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and
Partners"?
A.Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B.Customers
C.Internal departments
D.The Facilities Management function WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.11 What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.12 Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.None of the above WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.13 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of
all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Catalogue Management
C.Demand Management
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.14 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Business Relationship Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Availability ManagementWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.15 Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A.Remediation Planning
B.Categorization
C.Prioritization
D.Review and Close WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.16 Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A.1 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.17 Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A.Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B.Supplier Management and Demand Management
C.Demand Management and Service Level Management
D.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.18 Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
A.Act
B.Plan
C.Do
D.Coordinate WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.19 Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.20 A change process model should include:
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined,
including handling issues and unexpected events
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1 and 2 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.21 Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A.1 and 2 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 onlyWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.22 Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A.An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B.A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C.An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D.Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reportedWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.23 Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.Development, negotiation and agreement of organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.24 Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A.Service Design: Design the processes
B.Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service Operation: IT Operations Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.25 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service CatalogueWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.26 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.27 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.28 Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?
A.Components
B.Processes
C.The end to end service
D.Customer satisfactionWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.29 Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.Measurement, methods and metrics
B.Service Design Package
C.Service Portfolio Design
D.Process definitions WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.30 "Service Management is a set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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시험 번호/코드: BH0-009
시험 이름: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 75 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-22

BH0-009 덤프무료샘플다운로드하기: http://www.itexamdump.com/BH0-009.html

NO.1 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.2 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

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NO.6 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

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NO.9 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

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